I registered a foreign domain 7 years ago. The domain name carries the brand of a local newspaper. Basically it's a small to medium foreign newspaper who themselves registered the .com, I had registered the country specific extension which was still available at that point.
Initially I had some plans with it but gave up development years ago and simple set a redirect which redirects users to the newspapers' .com site. This has been like that for years.
The newspaper's ad agency recently got in touch with me about obtaining the domain.
My question is this:
When I check the stats of the domain, I see that it has some existing traffic to it. Is it fair that I charge the agency the price of an existing traffic domain opposed to a non-traffic domain although the existing traffic is most likely coming from users who type in the country specific extension (the one I own) opposed to the .com extension?
Another question I have is in regards to: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cybersquatting
"The cybersquatter then offers to sell the domain to the person or company who owns a trademark contained within the name at an inflated price."
Obviously, when you are in the business of buying and selling domain names, you have to inflate the price in order to profit. I also recall trading non-traffic domains in the $XXX area while only having spent $X amount on the domain.
So what level of inflated price is wikipedia talking about?
In my case, I think it's a price lower than a lawsuit.
Appreciate your thoughts ...







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